CCDS-O Valid Test Question & CCDS-O Official Practice Test

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q64-Q69):

NEW QUESTION # 64
A patient presents to the clinic with indwelling Foley catheter, symptoms of fatigue, and low back pain with BPH. Labs reveal WBC 20, and the urine culture is positive for E. coli. Prescription antibiotics are ordered for a UTI. Which of the following is the BEST query opportunity?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The strongest CDI query opportunity is clarifying whether the UTI is catheter-associated. The patient has an indwelling Foley catheter, significant leukocytosis (WBC 20), a positive urine culture for E. coli, and is being treated with antibiotics for UTI-these indicators raise a clear question about the etiology of infection and whether it is related to the urinary catheter. In outpatient CDI practice, linking the infection to a device (when clinically supported) improves documentation accuracy, supports correct code assignment, and has important quality and compliance implications because catheter-associated UTIs are captured differently than uncomplicated UTIs. By comparison, querying the "etiology of BPH" is not supported as an immediate gap (BPH is already stated), and the "etiology of low back pain" is less directly tied to the documented treatment focus (UTI management). "Leukocytosis" is a lab finding that is already objectively supported and often represents a symptom/abnormal result rather than the principal clarification needed. Therefore, confirming whether the UTI is related to the Foley catheter is the best, most clinically anchored query.


NEW QUESTION # 65
After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, "I just don't see how this impacts patient care." Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

Answer: C

Explanation:
RAF (Risk Adjustment Factor) is best explained to providers as a population-health and resource-planning tool, not a visit-level payment lever. In outpatient risk adjustment models, diagnoses and demographics are used to estimate the patient's overall disease burden and the expected cost/resources required to meet that patient's healthcare needs. When documentation accurately reflects active conditions and their specificity, the patient's risk profile is represented more realistically. That improves care in practical ways: it supports appropriate allocation of care management services (e.g., nurse navigators, chronic care programs), helps organizations anticipate medication, testing, specialist, and follow-up needs, and improves fairness of performance benchmarking by comparing outcomes and costs against similarly complex patients. Option A is overly simplistic because RAF does not directly determine an individual provider's reimbursement for a given encounter; it influences broader payment and benchmarking methodologies tied to attributed populations. Option C is not what RAF measures, and option D confuses RAF with medical necessity, which is based on clinical documentation and coverage rules, not a risk score.


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following contributes to the risk adjustment score under the CMS-HCC model?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Under the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology, the RAF is calculated primarily from two categories of inputs: (1) demographic/enrollment eligibility factors and (2) diagnosis codes that map to HCCs based on documented, reportable conditions. Eligibility status matters because Medicare models differentiate beneficiaries by factors such as aged versus disabled status and other enrollment characteristics that affect expected cost. The second major driver is the set of valid, supported ICD-10-CM codes reported for the beneficiary during the data collection period; only certain chronic, clinically significant conditions map to HCCs, and they must be documented as active and applicable to the encounter and coded correctly. In ambulatory CDI, this is why accurate condition capture, specificity, and linkage (e.g., cause/manifestation relationships) are emphasized-because reported conditions directly affect the patient's risk profile and the expected cost benchmark. By contrast, income status is not a standard CMS-HCC input, "previous risk score" is not itself an input variable, and utilization outcomes like cost of care or readmissions are not used to compute RAF (they may be evaluated separately in quality/cost programs).


NEW QUESTION # 67
A patient reports recent weight loss of 10 pounds in the last two months, decreased appetite, and no energy or desire to eat. She describes an inability to concentrate and complete simple tasks, likely due to ongoing insomnia. Documentation includes a PHQ-9 score of 11, and the patient is currently on paroxetine for depression. Which of the following is a query opportunity to obtain more specificity?

Answer: C

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, a strong specificity opportunity is to clarify the exact diagnostic term that best matches clinical indicators and supports correct ICD-10-CM reporting. The patient has multiple depressive symptoms (weight loss, poor appetite, low energy, impaired concentration), is already treated with an antidepressant (paroxetine), and has a PHQ-9 score of 11, consistent with at least moderate depressive symptom burden that warrants diagnostic clarity. Among the options, only Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is a recognized clinical diagnosis category with structured ICD-10-CM options that require further specificity (e.g., single vs recurrent episode, severity-mild/moderate/severe, psychotic features, and remission status). The other choices ("occurrence," "event," "reaction") are nonspecific, nonstandard phrases that do not reliably map to accurate ICD-10-CM diagnostic reporting and do not help improve documentation precision. A compliant query would ask the provider to specify whether the patient has MDD and, if so, document the episode type/severity and relationship to insomnia if clinically relevant, ensuring the record reflects what is being evaluated and treated during the encounter.


NEW QUESTION # 68
Based on previous documentation, which of the following diagnoses would a CDI specialist be MOST likely to bring to the provider's attention in preparation for an upcoming visit of a 70-year-old patient?

Answer: C

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, "pre-visit" or prospective preparation focuses on chronic, clinically significant conditions that are likely to remain active and that should be reassessed and documented with clear MEAT support (monitor, evaluate, assess/address, treat) during the upcoming encounter. Epilepsy, chronic heart failure, and Crohn's disease are all long-term conditions that commonly require ongoing medication management, monitoring, and periodic reassessment, making them strong candidates for reminder/education to ensure the provider documents current status (controlled vs uncontrolled, exacerbation, complications, and treatment plan). This also supports accurate risk adjustment because chronic conditions with ongoing impact are the ones expected to be recaptured when addressed. In contrast, option C includes "family history," which is not a current active condition for risk adjustment, and options D includes acute/self-limited problems (syncope episode, pharyngitis) that are less appropriate as pre-visit chronic-condition prompts. Option B mixes chronic disease with items that may be historical or encounter-specific (compression fracture timing/status), making it less consistently targetable than option A.


NEW QUESTION # 69
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